A 🧵

In 1800 CE, India amounted to a whopping 20% of the total world manufacturing output!

But more importantly the balance of trade went into the Indian economy in the form of goods in


exchange or bullion and helped Indian people’s standard of living. It had second most powerful economy, the wages and productivity throughout all the sections of society were high. It had a simple, inexpensive education system suited for its needs.

But, by the year 1900 , India had become synonymous with poverty, its exports accounted for mere 1.7% of the total world trade , and more than 30 million (more than 10 % of India's population) died of starvation in the British rule.

After 1818 when British became the major power in India Indian manufacturing output rapidly declined while British

See the attached image of table given by Paul Kennedy in his book ‘The Rise and Fall of Great Powers’

During the same period per capita levels of industrialization (relative to UK in 1900 =
100 scale) is given by Paul Kennedy in the following table.

Thus per capita level of industrialization was almost the same between UK and India around 1750, i.e. before British became a factor in India. Upon the British increasingly assuming power the per capita levels increased in UK while they decreased correspondingly in India.

Apparently more complete the British power hold on India; the faster was India’s decline.

Is this by mere coincidence? What happened? Is this just related to industrial revolution?

Or was the cost of industrial revolution and subsequent British progress deliberately passed down to India?



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Why is this the most powerful question you can ask when attempting to reach an agreement with another human being or organization?

A thread, co-written by @deanmbrody:

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To get clarity.

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Multiple responses to this question are likely to deliver a positive result.