The most important question now on the mind of all analysts and traders. Is this a bear market rally or is this the start of a bull move. Retweeting this as I will need a few tweets to explain my view

Everyone knows the HH-HL or LH-LL as per Dow theory. This can be a bit confusing on how one marks the Highs and Lows. Long back, I picked up this trick from one of the neo-Dow theorists on what to do in scenarios like this
Simply plot a 5 period exponential moving average on a different panel. A 5-EMA simply shows you a running weekly perspective and kind of smoothens the price where a single spike high/low is not of that much importance
You will see this 5-ema also making HH.HL.LH.LL. So now, rather than focusing on the highs/lows on the charts, focusing on highs/lows on the 5-ema gives a cleaner perspective
As per this charts, unless the 5-ema now closes above 17540 ( the ema, not Nifty price) I will not play this as a bull market. I will deal with this market as a counter move against the major bear trend
More about Dow theory here :

https://t.co/9gBIjv1iqY
In a strong bull market, the 5-ema moves in tandem with price. The tops are broken almost at same time, max a few days apart and sometimes in advance. See the marked examples.
That is not the case now, which holds me back from calling this a clean bull market
Since end March 2020, we have had the first clean breakdown of lows and a Lower High - Lower Low scenario
The common consensus is that moving averages, whether simple or exponential are lagging indicators. So explain this, the 5-ema crosses previous high even before the price crosses the previous high. This is a massively bullish signal
#ITC

More from Subhadip Nandy

Ok here is the explanation. Grab a cup of coffee and read on. If you have not read/noticed this, you will see intraday options movement in a new light.


Say we have two options, one 50 delta ATM options and another 30 delta OTM option. Normally for a 100 point move, the ATM option will move 50 points and the OTM option will move 30 points. But in a high volatile environment, the OTM option will also move nearly 50 points

To understand why this happens, first understand why an ATM option is 50 delta. An ATM option has the probability of 50% of expiring as ITM. The price just has to close a rupee above the strike for the CE to be ITM and vice versa for PEs

Now think of a highly volatile day like today. If someone is asked where the BNF will close for the day or expiry, no one can answer. BNF can close freakin anywhere, That makes every option of an equal probability of being ITM. So all options have a 50% probability of being ITM

Hence, when a huge volatile move starts, all OTM options behave like ATM options. This phenomenon was first observed in the Black Monday crash of 1987 at Wall Street, which also gave rise to the volatility skew/smirk
Perhaps you have the idea that calling me " 1 lot Nandy" is somehow derogatory and a easy poke at me. Allow me to explain why I look at this moniker as a badge of honour


I have traded 1 lot continuously twice in my life. The first in 2003 after I blew up on my INFY trade. I traded 1 lot ACC fut consistently and made 50k in a month

The 2nd time in 2013. When I suffered continuous losses for 5-6 months due to a variety of psychological issues. Then I traded 1 lot Nifty options consistently for 3 months. After that 2 lots for next 1 month and slowly increased

I have shared these two incidents on my various interveiws and regularly share this in detail with my handholding students when I talk about trading psychology.

This logic of trading 1 lot to iron out trading issues I learnt from the interview of Anthony Saliba, who traded 1 lot in options for 6 months. BTW, Saliba was the only options trader to have been profiled on the original Market Wizards ( I read his interview and used his logic)
This is actually an interesting question and a correct observation. Many people before you also have made this observation, so I am going to explain this the best I can


I am trading since badla days. There being long meant you had to pay badla / interest and being short meant you received badla. Similar to an options buyer having theta burn and an options seller being theta positive. So the bias among pros were being short bit

Now, as of now I am an options buyer. All my strategies are geared towards options buying, so I have a theta burn continuosly. I do use strategies to cover that a bit, but still the burn is there

Now, let's consider how an options buyer makes money. His enemy is theta, vega can be friend or enemy ( coming to this in next tweet) , Delta is whether his view is right or wrong

Now say I am bullish on BNF and I buy calls and I am directionally correct . As BNF goes up, generally IV will decrease. This leads to a double whammy.
1. Vega hurts me
2. Theta decay increases.
So, the position does give money, but slowly

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